6. What message is issued by a neighbor as a response to a valid Open?
A. Keepalive
B. Open
C. Exchange
D. NotificationE. Ping
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is not exchanged in a BGP Open message?
A. BGP version number
B. The local AS number
C. The hold time
D. The keepalive timer
E. The Router ID
Answer: D
8. The state of one BGP neighbor shows Established, which of the following is false?
A. The router has established a complete session with that neighbor.
B. BGP can exchange update, notification and keepalive messages with that neighbor
C. If the keepalive timer expires, the local system sends a keepalive message and restarts its keepalive timer
D. If the local system receives a notification message, it changes its state to OpenConfirmE. Established is the operational state
Answer: D
9. Which of the following is a Well Known Mandatory attribute?
A. Origin Code
B. Local Preference
C. MED
D. AS PathE. (a) and (d)
F. (b) and (d)
Answer: E
10. Which of the following is true, based on the AS Path list shown here?65206 65111 65100
A. AS 65206 originated the route
B. AS 65111 is a transit AS
C. AS 65100 is a transit AS
D. AS 65100 originated the route
E. (b) and (d)F. (a) and (c)
Answer: E
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2008年9月24日星期三
Pass4side 4A0-102 考试题库(1-5)
1. Which of the following are Link State protocols?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer: CD
2. ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer.
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination
Answer: D
3. Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A. From the router’s route table, select the best routes to be installed in the FIB for forwarding data.
B. Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in the route table.
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route table.
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active route in the routetable.
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to the router’s neighbors.
Answer: D
4. What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer.
A. network address, mask and metric
B. network address and metric
C. prefix and mask
D. prefix, next-hop and metric
E. prefix and next-hop
Answer: A
5. Choose the most accurate statement about the connections between eBGP peers.
A. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.
B. eBGP peers are always directly connected to each other.
C. eBGP peers are never directly connected to each other.
D. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other, unless they are in the same autonomous system.
E. eBGP peers are usually not directly connected to each other, additional configuration is required if they are.
Answer: A
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A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer: CD
2. ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer.
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination
Answer: D
3. Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A. From the router’s route table, select the best routes to be installed in the FIB for forwarding data.
B. Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in the route table.
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route table.
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active route in the routetable.
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to the router’s neighbors.
Answer: D
4. What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer.
A. network address, mask and metric
B. network address and metric
C. prefix and mask
D. prefix, next-hop and metric
E. prefix and next-hop
Answer: A
5. Choose the most accurate statement about the connections between eBGP peers.
A. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.
B. eBGP peers are always directly connected to each other.
C. eBGP peers are never directly connected to each other.
D. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other, unless they are in the same autonomous system.
E. eBGP peers are usually not directly connected to each other, additional configuration is required if they are.
Answer: A
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Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-226 独家题库 4
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
16. Select two correct statements regarding the workflow holds/activities/Exception Management.(Choose two.)
A. The Retry concurrent program can be run only at Execution modE.
B. Retry workflow activities are possible only at individual error levels.
C. Retry workflow activities are possible in batch mode via concurrent program.
D. Retry workflow activities cannot be launched from the Process Messages window.
E. When a ship line activity errors out after the line has progressed and the delivery detail is closed, theline status displays as Notify instead of Retry.
Answer: CE
17. During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from asupplier to be inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D
18. Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag ischeckeD. An internal requisition has been created and approveD.What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E
19. Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for theitem. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goodsreceived from nonlocal sources.Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH
20. Which data is provided by Oracle Purchasing to Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply, planning supply, and requisition information
B. items, requisition, and interorganization shipment information
C. receipts/deliveries and interorganization shipment information
D. receipts/deliveries, ATP supply, and planning supply information
E. receipts/deliveries, units of measure, ATP supply, and planning supply information
Answer: D
16. Select two correct statements regarding the workflow holds/activities/Exception Management.(Choose two.)
A. The Retry concurrent program can be run only at Execution modE.
B. Retry workflow activities are possible only at individual error levels.
C. Retry workflow activities are possible in batch mode via concurrent program.
D. Retry workflow activities cannot be launched from the Process Messages window.
E. When a ship line activity errors out after the line has progressed and the delivery detail is closed, theline status displays as Notify instead of Retry.
Answer: CE
17. During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from asupplier to be inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D
18. Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag ischeckeD. An internal requisition has been created and approveD.What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E
19. Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for theitem. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goodsreceived from nonlocal sources.Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH
20. Which data is provided by Oracle Purchasing to Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply, planning supply, and requisition information
B. items, requisition, and interorganization shipment information
C. receipts/deliveries and interorganization shipment information
D. receipts/deliveries, ATP supply, and planning supply information
E. receipts/deliveries, units of measure, ATP supply, and planning supply information
Answer: D
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-226 独家题库 3
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
11. PTO Kits consist of _____.
A. a standard BOM
B. a configurable BOM
C. a standard BOM with mandatory included options
D. a configurable BOM with mandatory included optionsE. an engineering BOM with mandatory included options
Answer: C
12. Identify the four statements related to the MOAC functionality. (Choose four.)
A. When querying any transaction, one must specify the operating unit.
B. The Operating Unit field is a display-only field for all the transaction forms.
C. While entering a transaction, the Operating Unit needs to be selected in case the user wants anOperating Unit other than the default.
D. While querying for a transaction, entering the Operating Unit helps the application to query lessernumber of transactions and results in better performancE.
E. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manageSales Orders and Returns across multiple operating units.
F. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manageSales Agreements and Quotes across multiple operating units.
Answer: CDEF
13. Weight and physical dimensions are examples of ____.
A. an item attribute
B. an item parameter
C. an item profile option
D. an item master characteristic
Answer: A
14. Identify three correct statements regarding customer acceptance setups. (Choose threE. )
A. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the inventory organization level.
B. For enabling customer acceptance, no setup is required in OM.
C. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the OM operating-unit level.
D. Define assignment rules for deferral reasons at the customer, site, or item level.
E. The first step to enable customer acceptance is to set the OM system parameter: Enable FulfillmentAcceptancE.F. The second step of the customer acceptance setup is to define customer acceptance deferral reasonsin the AR revenue management setup.
Answer: CEF
15. What are the three necessary setup steps to enable system credit checking on an order? (ChoosethreE. )
A. Assign a credit rule to the order type being useD.
B. Select a warehouse that has credit checking enableD.
C. Enable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.
D. Use a payment term for which the Credit check box is enableD.
E. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is selecteD.
F. Make sure that there is at least one defaulting rule enabled for credit checkinG.
Answer: ADE
11. PTO Kits consist of _____.
A. a standard BOM
B. a configurable BOM
C. a standard BOM with mandatory included options
D. a configurable BOM with mandatory included optionsE. an engineering BOM with mandatory included options
Answer: C
12. Identify the four statements related to the MOAC functionality. (Choose four.)
A. When querying any transaction, one must specify the operating unit.
B. The Operating Unit field is a display-only field for all the transaction forms.
C. While entering a transaction, the Operating Unit needs to be selected in case the user wants anOperating Unit other than the default.
D. While querying for a transaction, entering the Operating Unit helps the application to query lessernumber of transactions and results in better performancE.
E. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manageSales Orders and Returns across multiple operating units.
F. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manageSales Agreements and Quotes across multiple operating units.
Answer: CDEF
13. Weight and physical dimensions are examples of ____.
A. an item attribute
B. an item parameter
C. an item profile option
D. an item master characteristic
Answer: A
14. Identify three correct statements regarding customer acceptance setups. (Choose threE. )
A. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the inventory organization level.
B. For enabling customer acceptance, no setup is required in OM.
C. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the OM operating-unit level.
D. Define assignment rules for deferral reasons at the customer, site, or item level.
E. The first step to enable customer acceptance is to set the OM system parameter: Enable FulfillmentAcceptancE.F. The second step of the customer acceptance setup is to define customer acceptance deferral reasonsin the AR revenue management setup.
Answer: CEF
15. What are the three necessary setup steps to enable system credit checking on an order? (ChoosethreE. )
A. Assign a credit rule to the order type being useD.
B. Select a warehouse that has credit checking enableD.
C. Enable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.
D. Use a payment term for which the Credit check box is enableD.
E. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is selecteD.
F. Make sure that there is at least one defaulting rule enabled for credit checkinG.
Answer: ADE
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-226 独家题库 2
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
6. XYZ is a chemical manufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from asingle production batcH.100 kilos of item A manufactured from a single batch has a single expiration datE. However, the purityof item A varies as follows:Category 1: 95%Category 2: 85%Category 3: 50%From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?
A. Enable lot control. Map three categories as coproducts.
B. Enable lot control for item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.
C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.
D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.
E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped withserial numbers.Answer: D
7. For which type of move order is approval required?
A. Planning Move OrderB. Shipping Move OrderC. Production Move OrderD. Requisition Move OrderE. Replenishment Move OrderAnswer: D8. Identify four functions that a user can perform using the Material WorkbencH. (Choose four)
A. Create move orders.
B. Create and save queries.
C. Change material statuses.
D. Perform miscellaneous issues.
E. Perform miscellaneous receipts.
F. Perform pick confirm transactions.
G. Perform ship confirm transactions.
H. View material in receiving, on-hand quantities, and intransit material.
Answer: ABCH
9. The client has decided that Quality and Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage,so new supply from current manufacturing will be added to current inventory on hand by the OpenTransactions InterfacE.The immediate requirement is to go-live with Inventory and Order Management.Which three seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control? (Choose threE. )
A. average cost update
B. all internal transactions
C. backflush subinventory transfer
D. miscellaneous issues and receipts
E. all transaction types related to Work in Process
F. all transaction types related to Project Manufacturing
Answer: CEF
10. ACME attempts the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been bookeD.Which three options are valid? (Choose three. )
A. Run the Auto Allocate process.
B. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process.
C. Run the Interface Trip Stop process.
D. Use the Standard Report Submission process (SRS).
E. Execute Online from the Release Sales Order window.
F. Run a concurrent program from the Release Sales Order window.
Answer: DEF
6. XYZ is a chemical manufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from asingle production batcH.100 kilos of item A manufactured from a single batch has a single expiration datE. However, the purityof item A varies as follows:Category 1: 95%Category 2: 85%Category 3: 50%From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?
A. Enable lot control. Map three categories as coproducts.
B. Enable lot control for item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.
C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.
D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.
E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped withserial numbers.Answer: D
7. For which type of move order is approval required?
A. Planning Move OrderB. Shipping Move OrderC. Production Move OrderD. Requisition Move OrderE. Replenishment Move OrderAnswer: D8. Identify four functions that a user can perform using the Material WorkbencH. (Choose four)
A. Create move orders.
B. Create and save queries.
C. Change material statuses.
D. Perform miscellaneous issues.
E. Perform miscellaneous receipts.
F. Perform pick confirm transactions.
G. Perform ship confirm transactions.
H. View material in receiving, on-hand quantities, and intransit material.
Answer: ABCH
9. The client has decided that Quality and Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage,so new supply from current manufacturing will be added to current inventory on hand by the OpenTransactions InterfacE.The immediate requirement is to go-live with Inventory and Order Management.Which three seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control? (Choose threE. )
A. average cost update
B. all internal transactions
C. backflush subinventory transfer
D. miscellaneous issues and receipts
E. all transaction types related to Work in Process
F. all transaction types related to Project Manufacturing
Answer: CEF
10. ACME attempts the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been bookeD.Which three options are valid? (Choose three. )
A. Run the Auto Allocate process.
B. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process.
C. Run the Interface Trip Stop process.
D. Use the Standard Report Submission process (SRS).
E. Execute Online from the Release Sales Order window.
F. Run a concurrent program from the Release Sales Order window.
Answer: DEF
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-226 独家题库 1
题库内容摘自http://www.pass4side.cn/ 。更新时间：2008-9-22
1. The Check ATP option is enabled for an item in the Finished Goods subinventory.Which action will occur?
A. Check the quantity requested against forecast.
B. Generate a requisition for the requested quantity.
C. Permit order booking based on a successful test.
D. Check the quantity requested against safety stock.
E. Check the quantity requested against Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).
Answer: C
2. The client requires that cycle counts are entered by the warehouse stafF. However, only thewarehouse manager can schedule counts, generate count requests, and approve the counts that are outof tolerancE.What should you consider when setting up the cycle counting process? (Choose three. )
A. the frequency of the recounts required
B. the number of automatic recounts required
C. the tolerance level for automatic adjustment
D. Modify the workday calendar used by the warehousE.
E. the responsibility that has access to the Approve Counts function
F. the number of serial and/or lot controlled items included in the count
Answer: BCE
3. Company Z has two sites. Both sites are inventory organizations. One is in Colorado, the other is inNew Jersey. Inventory is expected to travel between the two, in both directions.The following requirements are identical for the two organizations:a) Ownership transfer occurs upon ship confirm.b) There is a two-step receiving process.c) Only approved orders would be performeD.Which setups in Shipping Networks meet these criteria?
A. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = checked
B. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required =unchecked
C. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =checked
D. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =checkedE. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Inspection, Internal Order Required =checked
Answer: C
4. Each UOM class must have a base unit specifie D.Which represents a base unit for the UOM Class Quantity?A. OneB. EachC. CaseD. GrossE. DozenAnswer: B
5. A user informs you about the inability to create a requisition using category 110.33. The Purchasingcategory structure is set up as Item Category.Commodity.The user has described the problem as follows:"I am able to select 110 for the item category and 33 for the commodity, but when I click OK I receive anerror."Identify two reasons for the error. (Choose two.)A. The commodity 33 has been deactivateD.B. The item category 110 has been deactivateD.C. The category 110.33 is not assigned to a buyer.D. Category 110.33 is not set up in the categories form.E. 110.33 is not assigned to the Purchasing category set.F. 110.33 has not been added to the appropriate value set.G. Allow Dynamic Inserts is not checked for the Purchasing category flexfielD.Answer: DE
1. The Check ATP option is enabled for an item in the Finished Goods subinventory.Which action will occur?
A. Check the quantity requested against forecast.
B. Generate a requisition for the requested quantity.
C. Permit order booking based on a successful test.
D. Check the quantity requested against safety stock.
E. Check the quantity requested against Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).
Answer: C
2. The client requires that cycle counts are entered by the warehouse stafF. However, only thewarehouse manager can schedule counts, generate count requests, and approve the counts that are outof tolerancE.What should you consider when setting up the cycle counting process? (Choose three. )
A. the frequency of the recounts required
B. the number of automatic recounts required
C. the tolerance level for automatic adjustment
D. Modify the workday calendar used by the warehousE.
E. the responsibility that has access to the Approve Counts function
F. the number of serial and/or lot controlled items included in the count
Answer: BCE
3. Company Z has two sites. Both sites are inventory organizations. One is in Colorado, the other is inNew Jersey. Inventory is expected to travel between the two, in both directions.The following requirements are identical for the two organizations:a) Ownership transfer occurs upon ship confirm.b) There is a two-step receiving process.c) Only approved orders would be performeD.Which setups in Shipping Networks meet these criteria?
A. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = checked
B. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required =unchecked
C. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =checked
D. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =checkedE. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Inspection, Internal Order Required =checked
Answer: C
4. Each UOM class must have a base unit specifie D.Which represents a base unit for the UOM Class Quantity?A. OneB. EachC. CaseD. GrossE. DozenAnswer: B
5. A user informs you about the inability to create a requisition using category 110.33. The Purchasingcategory structure is set up as Item Category.Commodity.The user has described the problem as follows:"I am able to select 110 for the item category and 33 for the commodity, but when I click OK I receive anerror."Identify two reasons for the error. (Choose two.)A. The commodity 33 has been deactivateD.B. The item category 110 has been deactivateD.C. The category 110.33 is not assigned to a buyer.D. Category 110.33 is not set up in the categories form.E. 110.33 is not assigned to the Purchasing category set.F. 110.33 has not been added to the appropriate value set.G. Allow Dynamic Inserts is not checked for the Purchasing category flexfielD.Answer: DE
2008年9月23日星期二
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-238 独家认证题库 4
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
16. Before you apply a patch, you read the readme.txt file.One of the areas of Oracle Applications to which the patch will be applied is JAVA_TOP.The readme file mentions that you may need to generate product JAR files in the AD Administration utilities afterthe patch is applied.When generating product JAR files, the AD Administration utility will prompt you with the question: Do youwant to force the generation of all JAR files?What are the three occasions when you need to force the generation of all JAR files? (Choose three.)
A.after changing your digital signature
B.after updating to a new Java version
C.if you find you have missing or out-of-date JAR files
D.if you are upgrading the Oracle Developer technology stack
Answer: ABD
17. You run the AD Administration utility and select the Relink Applications programs.You answered the following questions during the utility run:Do you wish to proceed with the relink [Yes]? (You answer Yes.)Enter the list of products to link ("all" for all products) [all]? (You answer "ad." )Do you want to generate specific executables for each selected product [No]? (You answer Yes.)AD Administration can relink your Oracle Applications programs with debuginformation. Oracle recommends that you do not relink your programswith debug information unless asked to do so by Oracle Support Services.Do you want to relink with debug information [No]? (You answer No.)What is the next question asked by adadmin?
A.It gives you a list of all executables to choose from.
B.It gives you the list of "ad" executables to choose from.
C.It gives you the list of all executables except "ad" to choose from.
D.It asks no question. It displays the message "Review the messages above, then press [Return] to continue."
Answer: D
18. You discover that you will be applying an application patch on your APPL_TOP by using AutoPatch, whichcontains a compatible feature, the prereq line.To ensure that the automatic, prerequisite patch-checking feature operates during the application of the patch, youmust run AD Administration, Maintain Snapshot Information, then perform some key tasks, and then AutoPatch.Select four key Maintain Snapshot Information tasks or combination of tasks that will ensure that the prerequisitepatch-checking feature operates during the application of the patch. (Choose four.)
A.Update a current view snapshot, or create a named snapshot.
B.Export a snapshot to a file, and then delete the named snapshot.
C.Import an up-to-date snapshot from a file from a different APPL_TOP.
D.List snapshots, delete the named snapshot, and create a named snapshot.
E.Copy the existing snapshot, delete the named snapshot, and then create a named snapshot.
Answer: ACDE
19. AD Administration contains a utility named Maintain Snapshot Information. Which statements correctlydescribe the functionality of this utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A.You can create a copy of an existing snapshot.
B.You can delete the current view snapshot.
C.You can create a list of the current view and named snapshots stored in your system.
D.You can export an existing snapshot to a file for storage or to another system.
E.You can update the current view snapshot with any changes to the snapshot since the last update.
Answer: ACDE
20. Identify two ways in which you validate the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suitesetup. (Choose two.)
A.Run the /appsutil/scripts//advrfapp.sh script.
B.Run the AD Administration utility in noninteractive mode with the default file havingmenu_option=VALIDATE_APPS.
C.Run the AD Administration utility in interactive mode, and then select Compile/Reload Applications DatabaseEntities menu > Compile APPS Schema option.
D. Use SQL*PLUS / @$AD_TOP/admin/sql/advrfapp.sql .
Answer: BD
16. Before you apply a patch, you read the readme.txt file.One of the areas of Oracle Applications to which the patch will be applied is JAVA_TOP.The readme file mentions that you may need to generate product JAR files in the AD Administration utilities afterthe patch is applied.When generating product JAR files, the AD Administration utility will prompt you with the question: Do youwant to force the generation of all JAR files?What are the three occasions when you need to force the generation of all JAR files? (Choose three.)
A.after changing your digital signature
B.after updating to a new Java version
C.if you find you have missing or out-of-date JAR files
D.if you are upgrading the Oracle Developer technology stack
Answer: ABD
17. You run the AD Administration utility and select the Relink Applications programs.You answered the following questions during the utility run:Do you wish to proceed with the relink [Yes]? (You answer Yes.)Enter the list of products to link ("all" for all products) [all]? (You answer "ad." )Do you want to generate specific executables for each selected product [No]? (You answer Yes.)AD Administration can relink your Oracle Applications programs with debuginformation. Oracle recommends that you do not relink your programswith debug information unless asked to do so by Oracle Support Services.Do you want to relink with debug information [No]? (You answer No.)What is the next question asked by adadmin?
A.It gives you a list of all executables to choose from.
B.It gives you the list of "ad" executables to choose from.
C.It gives you the list of all executables except "ad" to choose from.
D.It asks no question. It displays the message "Review the messages above, then press [Return] to continue."
Answer: D
18. You discover that you will be applying an application patch on your APPL_TOP by using AutoPatch, whichcontains a compatible feature, the prereq line.To ensure that the automatic, prerequisite patch-checking feature operates during the application of the patch, youmust run AD Administration, Maintain Snapshot Information, then perform some key tasks, and then AutoPatch.Select four key Maintain Snapshot Information tasks or combination of tasks that will ensure that the prerequisitepatch-checking feature operates during the application of the patch. (Choose four.)
A.Update a current view snapshot, or create a named snapshot.
B.Export a snapshot to a file, and then delete the named snapshot.
C.Import an up-to-date snapshot from a file from a different APPL_TOP.
D.List snapshots, delete the named snapshot, and create a named snapshot.
E.Copy the existing snapshot, delete the named snapshot, and then create a named snapshot.
Answer: ACDE
19. AD Administration contains a utility named Maintain Snapshot Information. Which statements correctlydescribe the functionality of this utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A.You can create a copy of an existing snapshot.
B.You can delete the current view snapshot.
C.You can create a list of the current view and named snapshots stored in your system.
D.You can export an existing snapshot to a file for storage or to another system.
E.You can update the current view snapshot with any changes to the snapshot since the last update.
Answer: ACDE
20. Identify two ways in which you validate the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suitesetup. (Choose two.)
A.Run the /appsutil/scripts//advrfapp.sh script.
B.Run the AD Administration utility in noninteractive mode with the default file havingmenu_option=VALIDATE_APPS.
C.Run the AD Administration utility in interactive mode, and then select Compile/Reload Applications DatabaseEntities menu > Compile APPS Schema option.
D. Use SQL*PLUS / @$AD_TOP/admin/sql/advrfapp.sql .
Answer: BD
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-238 独家认证题库 3
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
12. During installation, the Rapid Install process creates ______ that are used to start and stop the server processeson the database tier.
A.JServer load balancers
B.cost-based optimizers
C.database resource managers
D.session-persistent load balancers
E.database-tier server process scripts
Answer: E
13. Which command can be used only with a single-node installation?
A.rapidwiz -restart
B.rapidwiz -techstack
C.rapidwiz -servername
D.rapidwiz -silent -config
Answer: C
14. You experience report-error problems in the Inventory module after applying a patch to the same module.You run the AD Administration utility, and select the Generate Application Files menu. Because you have reportproblems, you decide to run Generate Report Files.You answered the following questions during the utility run:1. Do you want to generate Oracle report objects using the current character set? (You answer Yes.)2. Do you want to regenerate the Oracle reports PL/SQL library files? (You answer No.)3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle reports executable files? (You answer Yes.)4. For which products do you want to generate Oracle report objects? (You answer "all reports in INV.")After you run the AD utilities, most reports in Inventory run with no errors. However, you still experience errorswith two reports.Which two statements explain why the two reports still run with errors? (Choose two.)A.You have reports in a different language.
B.You have reports with external library files.
C.You have custom reports in a custom directory.
D.You have reports from a different module being referenced on the Inventory report menu.
Answer: B
15. You just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applicationsnow experience problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form.You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix theproblem.You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)5. Enter the list of products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)6. Do you want to generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmxThe utility finished with no errors in the log file.What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A.All forms in the product group fnd now render with errors.
B.All forms in the product group fnd now render without errors.
C.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors.
D.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors.
Answer: C
12. During installation, the Rapid Install process creates ______ that are used to start and stop the server processeson the database tier.
A.JServer load balancers
B.cost-based optimizers
C.database resource managers
D.session-persistent load balancers
E.database-tier server process scripts
Answer: E
13. Which command can be used only with a single-node installation?
A.rapidwiz -restart
B.rapidwiz -techstack
C.rapidwiz -servername
D.rapidwiz -silent -config
Answer: C
14. You experience report-error problems in the Inventory module after applying a patch to the same module.You run the AD Administration utility, and select the Generate Application Files menu. Because you have reportproblems, you decide to run Generate Report Files.You answered the following questions during the utility run:1. Do you want to generate Oracle report objects using the current character set? (You answer Yes.)2. Do you want to regenerate the Oracle reports PL/SQL library files? (You answer No.)3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle reports executable files? (You answer Yes.)4. For which products do you want to generate Oracle report objects? (You answer "all reports in INV.")After you run the AD utilities, most reports in Inventory run with no errors. However, you still experience errorswith two reports.Which two statements explain why the two reports still run with errors? (Choose two.)A.You have reports in a different language.
B.You have reports with external library files.
C.You have custom reports in a custom directory.
D.You have reports from a different module being referenced on the Inventory report menu.
Answer: B
15. You just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applicationsnow experience problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form.You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix theproblem.You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)5. Enter the list of products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)6. Do you want to generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmxThe utility finished with no errors in the log file.What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A.All forms in the product group fnd now render with errors.
B.All forms in the product group fnd now render without errors.
C.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors.
D.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors.
Answer: C
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-238 独家认证题库 2
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
6. Which table is used by AutoPatch as a staging area for the job information in parallel mode and needs to bedropped to start a new autopatch session if the earlier session failed?A.FND_JOBS
B.FND_PROCESSES
C.FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES
D.FND_INSTALLED_PROCESSES
Answer: C
7. If the patch is running in Pre-Install mode, where would the patch history files be stored in Oracle ApplicationsR12 configured on a UNIX operating system?A.$AD_TOP/admin
B.$APPL_TOP/admin
C.$TEMP/runInstaller
D.$APPL_TOP/admin/
E.$COMMON_TOP/admin/
Answer: D
8. As part of the cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the application tier file system to the targetsystem.Which step is NOT a part of this process?
A.Shut down the application tier server processes.
B.Log on to the target system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
C.Copy the APPL_TOP directory from the source node to the target node.
D.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
E.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
F.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
G.Copy the <806> directory from the source node to the target node.
Answer: B
9. While working with Web forms an application user sometimes comes across a performance issue. The initialscreen takes too long to appear with the Web form screen, showing the status "Downloading JAR files..." for along time.Identify the reasons for this. (Choose two.)
A.It always takes time to load the Web forms.
B.An older version of Sun J2SE plug-in is installed on the Desktop tier.
C.JAR files for the Forms client applet are downloaded automatically the first time it is used.
D.The browser will automatically retrieve new JAR files if they have changed on the application tier.
E.The Internet Explorer browser security level should be set as "Low" for the zone that contains the OracleApplication Release 12 Web pages.
Answer: CD
10. After the successful installation of Oracle Applications Release 12, environment files are created.Which environment file is used to identify and describe third-party and custom applications linked with OracleApplications?
A.the context file
B.the devenv.env file
C.the fndenv.env file
D.the adovars.env file
E.the adconfig.txt file
Answer: B
6. Which table is used by AutoPatch as a staging area for the job information in parallel mode and needs to bedropped to start a new autopatch session if the earlier session failed?A.FND_JOBS
B.FND_PROCESSES
C.FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES
D.FND_INSTALLED_PROCESSES
Answer: C
7. If the patch is running in Pre-Install mode, where would the patch history files be stored in Oracle ApplicationsR12 configured on a UNIX operating system?A.$AD_TOP/admin
B.$APPL_TOP/admin
C.$TEMP/runInstaller
D.$APPL_TOP/admin/
E.$COMMON_TOP/admin/
Answer: D
8. As part of the cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the application tier file system to the targetsystem.Which step is NOT a part of this process?
A.Shut down the application tier server processes.
B.Log on to the target system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
C.Copy the APPL_TOP directory from the source node to the target node.
D.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
E.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
F.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
G.Copy the <806> directory from the source node to the target node.
Answer: B
9. While working with Web forms an application user sometimes comes across a performance issue. The initialscreen takes too long to appear with the Web form screen, showing the status "Downloading JAR files..." for along time.Identify the reasons for this. (Choose two.)
A.It always takes time to load the Web forms.
B.An older version of Sun J2SE plug-in is installed on the Desktop tier.
C.JAR files for the Forms client applet are downloaded automatically the first time it is used.
D.The browser will automatically retrieve new JAR files if they have changed on the application tier.
E.The Internet Explorer browser security level should be set as "Low" for the zone that contains the OracleApplication Release 12 Web pages.
Answer: CD
10. After the successful installation of Oracle Applications Release 12, environment files are created.Which environment file is used to identify and describe third-party and custom applications linked with OracleApplications?
A.the context file
B.the devenv.env file
C.the fndenv.env file
D.the adovars.env file
E.the adconfig.txt file
Answer: B
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-238 独家认证题库 1
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-22
1. What are the two occasions when it is appropriate to run "Compile APPS schema" by using the ADAdministration utility in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment? (Choose two.)
A.during the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite upgrade process
B.when custom packages are moved to the APPS schema and need to be compiled
C.after enabling the multiple reporting currencies in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment
D.after enabling the multiorganization functionality in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment
E.when encountering invalid objects in the SYS and SYSTEM schemas in the Oracle Applications R12E-Business Suite database
Answer: AB
2. What are the two possible sequences of worker status while a job is being completed by a worker? (Choosetwo.)
A.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Completed
B.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Completed
C.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
D.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => CompletedE.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Running => Completed
Answer: AC
3. Identify the files that are changed when you run AutoConfig. (Choose all that apply.)A./listener.ora
B./.env
C./admin/adconfig.txt
D./.env
E./appl/admin/.xml
Answer: ABD
4. Identify the patch that you apply to upgrade the Oracle Applications system from the 11.5.5 version to the11.5.10 version.
A.diagnostic patch
B.stand-alone patch
C.maintenance pack
D.product family release update pack
Answer: C
5. You want to apply a patch on your Oracle Applications system. Before doing this, you want to view the filesthat are new, changed, and ignored while applying the patch.Which feature of the Patch Wizard would help you accomplish this?
A.Patch Filters
B.Patch Impact Analysis
C.Recommended Patches
D.Patch Information Bundle
Answer: B
1. What are the two occasions when it is appropriate to run "Compile APPS schema" by using the ADAdministration utility in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment? (Choose two.)
A.during the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite upgrade process
B.when custom packages are moved to the APPS schema and need to be compiled
C.after enabling the multiple reporting currencies in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment
D.after enabling the multiorganization functionality in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment
E.when encountering invalid objects in the SYS and SYSTEM schemas in the Oracle Applications R12E-Business Suite database
Answer: AB
2. What are the two possible sequences of worker status while a job is being completed by a worker? (Choosetwo.)
A.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Completed
B.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Completed
C.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
D.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => CompletedE.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Running => Completed
Answer: AC
3. Identify the files that are changed when you run AutoConfig. (Choose all that apply.)A./listener.ora
B./.env
C./admin/adconfig.txt
D./.env
E./appl/admin/.xml
Answer: ABD
4. Identify the patch that you apply to upgrade the Oracle Applications system from the 11.5.5 version to the11.5.10 version.
A.diagnostic patch
B.stand-alone patch
C.maintenance pack
D.product family release update pack
Answer: C
5. You want to apply a patch on your Oracle Applications system. Before doing this, you want to view the filesthat are new, changed, and ignored while applying the patch.Which feature of the Patch Wizard would help you accomplish this?
A.Patch Filters
B.Patch Impact Analysis
C.Recommended Patches
D.Patch Information Bundle
Answer: B
Pass4side IBM 000-742 考试题库 4
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-20
16. Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. The customer wants to run centralized backups. Assuming auniform change rate for the data on all of the servers shown, which of the following nodes is the best candidate fora backup server?
A. Node A
B. Node B
C. Node C
D. Node E
Answer: C
17. When choosing between an IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library and an IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Libraryfor an open system environment, which requirement differentiates the two libraries?
A. Standalone or rack mounted
B. SCSI or FC attachment
C. Logical library sharing
D. Upgradeable storage slot capacity
Answer: D
18. A customer has reviewed the Storage Specialist's proposal for a centralized disk solution supporting Sun, HP,Intel, IBM eServer pSeries and iSeries servers. The customer's feedback indicates that the solution exceeds theirbudget. They also indicate that they have signed an agreement outsourcing their iSeries applications. Which ofthe following would be the most appropriate change to the proposal?
A. Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem.
B. Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem and reduce the SAN port count.
C. Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to a NAS solution and eliminate the SAN.
D. Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM TotalStorage DS4000 and reduce theSAN port count.
Answer: D
19. Which of the following is a competitive advantage of the IBM TotalStorage DS4300 compared to the HPMSA1000?
A. FlashCopy option
B. Remote Mirroring option
C. Additional host configuration options
D. Better reliability, availability, and serviceability (RAS) characteristics
Answer: B
20. A customer has a requirement for recall of tape data. The media choice must have the longest archival life.Which of the following would be the most appropriate selection?
A. LTO
B. DLT
C. SDLT
D. 3590
Answer: A
16. Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. The customer wants to run centralized backups. Assuming auniform change rate for the data on all of the servers shown, which of the following nodes is the best candidate fora backup server?
A. Node A
B. Node B
C. Node C
D. Node E
Answer: C
17. When choosing between an IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library and an IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Libraryfor an open system environment, which requirement differentiates the two libraries?
A. Standalone or rack mounted
B. SCSI or FC attachment
C. Logical library sharing
D. Upgradeable storage slot capacity
Answer: D
18. A customer has reviewed the Storage Specialist's proposal for a centralized disk solution supporting Sun, HP,Intel, IBM eServer pSeries and iSeries servers. The customer's feedback indicates that the solution exceeds theirbudget. They also indicate that they have signed an agreement outsourcing their iSeries applications. Which ofthe following would be the most appropriate change to the proposal?
A. Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem.
B. Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem and reduce the SAN port count.
C. Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to a NAS solution and eliminate the SAN.
D. Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM TotalStorage DS4000 and reduce theSAN port count.
Answer: D
19. Which of the following is a competitive advantage of the IBM TotalStorage DS4300 compared to the HPMSA1000?
A. FlashCopy option
B. Remote Mirroring option
C. Additional host configuration options
D. Better reliability, availability, and serviceability (RAS) characteristics
Answer: B
20. A customer has a requirement for recall of tape data. The media choice must have the longest archival life.Which of the following would be the most appropriate selection?
A. LTO
B. DLT
C. SDLT
D. 3590
Answer: A
Pass4side IBM 000-742 考试题库 3
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-20
11. A customer will be using an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Subsystem. In order to provide the highestdata availability for a database server, which of the following is the most appropriate hardware RAID technologyto recommend?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 50
Answer: C
12. A customer is migrating a 600 GB Oracle database from an older IBM eServer pSeries server to a new one.The data is on a 2 TB IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) that is 80% full. What is the easiestway to move the data to the new server?
A. Assign new LUNs to the new system, backup the data with the existing tape library, and restore it on the newsystem.
B. Use IBM TotalStorage ESS Specialist to assign the existing LUNs to the new server and use AIX LVMimportvg to acquire the existing data.
C. Create new LUNs as targets, perform FlashCopy to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
D. Create new LUNs as targets, perform Metro Mirror to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the newserver.
Answer: B
13. Which of the following is a feature of all IBM TotalStorage Ultrium tape drives?
A. Statistical Analysis and Reporting System (SARS)
B. Native switched fabric 2 Gb Fibre Channel interface
C. WORM Tape
D. 64 MB buffer
Answer: A
14. After a long competitive sales cycle, the customer has decided to implement their first centralized storagesolution on the IBM TotalStorage DS4500 Storage Server. To help ensure a successful installation, which of thefollowing should be proposed as part of the solution?
A. Service Alert
B. Business Continuance Services
C. 3-Year Warranty Service Upgrade
D. Planning and Implementation Services
Answer: D
15. A customer would like to integrate a Windows file server into the centralized IBM Tivoli Storage Manager(TSM) backup solution. The servers are SAN attached to an IBM Total Storage DS4500. There is very little LANbandwidth to spare. What should the Storage Specialist recommend?
A. Implement an IBM TSM LAN Free solution.
B. Add a larger dedicated tape drive and have IBM TSM manage it remotely.
C. Install IBM TSM for Application Servers.
D. Install the IBM TSM client and backup over the network.
Answer: A
11. A customer will be using an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Subsystem. In order to provide the highestdata availability for a database server, which of the following is the most appropriate hardware RAID technologyto recommend?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 50
Answer: C
12. A customer is migrating a 600 GB Oracle database from an older IBM eServer pSeries server to a new one.The data is on a 2 TB IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) that is 80% full. What is the easiestway to move the data to the new server?
A. Assign new LUNs to the new system, backup the data with the existing tape library, and restore it on the newsystem.
B. Use IBM TotalStorage ESS Specialist to assign the existing LUNs to the new server and use AIX LVMimportvg to acquire the existing data.
C. Create new LUNs as targets, perform FlashCopy to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
D. Create new LUNs as targets, perform Metro Mirror to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the newserver.
Answer: B
13. Which of the following is a feature of all IBM TotalStorage Ultrium tape drives?
A. Statistical Analysis and Reporting System (SARS)
B. Native switched fabric 2 Gb Fibre Channel interface
C. WORM Tape
D. 64 MB buffer
Answer: A
14. After a long competitive sales cycle, the customer has decided to implement their first centralized storagesolution on the IBM TotalStorage DS4500 Storage Server. To help ensure a successful installation, which of thefollowing should be proposed as part of the solution?
A. Service Alert
B. Business Continuance Services
C. 3-Year Warranty Service Upgrade
D. Planning and Implementation Services
Answer: D
15. A customer would like to integrate a Windows file server into the centralized IBM Tivoli Storage Manager(TSM) backup solution. The servers are SAN attached to an IBM Total Storage DS4500. There is very little LANbandwidth to spare. What should the Storage Specialist recommend?
A. Implement an IBM TSM LAN Free solution.
B. Add a larger dedicated tape drive and have IBM TSM manage it remotely.
C. Install IBM TSM for Application Servers.
D. Install the IBM TSM client and backup over the network.
Answer: A
Pass4side IBM 000-742 考试题库 2
题库内容摘自http://www.pass4side.cn/ 。更新时间：2008-9-20
6. A customer owns a 150 GB usable RAID 5 SCSI disk subsystem attached to a single host and wants to increasedata throughput, reliability, availability, and serviceability. Cost is a significant consideration. Which of thefollowing is most likely to satisfy all of these requirements?
A. Convert the RAID 5 subsystem to a RAID 1 subsystem.
B. Convert the existing subsystem to dual-attached SCSI.
C. Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server.
D. Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS8000 Storage Server.
Answer: C
7. A distributor is planning to open five locations, with each location requiring a local nightly backup of 500 GBof data from a Sun server. Performance and cost are key requirements. Which of the following is the bestsolution?
A. IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader
B. IBM TotalStorage 3590 Model H11 Tape Drive
C. IBM TotalStorage 3592 Model J1A Tape Drive
D. IBM TotalStorage 7205 Model 550 External SDLT320 Tape Drive
Answer: A
8. A customer is currently running a mail server application and is interested in a new storage subsystem. Whichof the following will have the most impact in sizing the subsystem?
A. Record size
B. Logical volume partitioning
C. Data security
D. Number of users
Answer: D
9. A large customer environment consists of 16 Intel-based servers that support electronic mail. The servers haveexceeded their disk storage capacity and the customer would like to centralize disk storage. Which of thefollowing solutions should be recommended?
A. IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
B. IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
C. IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
Answer: C
10. A customer is running a SAP R/3 application using Oracle Parallel Server as the database manager on an IBMeServer pSeries server. The customer would like two servers to share the same Oracle database. Which of thefollowing IBM storage products would NOT be recommended to meet the customer's requirement?
A. IBM TotalStorage EXP Plus
B. IBM TotalStorage SAN Filesystem
C. IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
D. IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
Answer: C
6. A customer owns a 150 GB usable RAID 5 SCSI disk subsystem attached to a single host and wants to increasedata throughput, reliability, availability, and serviceability. Cost is a significant consideration. Which of thefollowing is most likely to satisfy all of these requirements?
A. Convert the RAID 5 subsystem to a RAID 1 subsystem.
B. Convert the existing subsystem to dual-attached SCSI.
C. Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server.
D. Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS8000 Storage Server.
Answer: C
7. A distributor is planning to open five locations, with each location requiring a local nightly backup of 500 GBof data from a Sun server. Performance and cost are key requirements. Which of the following is the bestsolution?
A. IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader
B. IBM TotalStorage 3590 Model H11 Tape Drive
C. IBM TotalStorage 3592 Model J1A Tape Drive
D. IBM TotalStorage 7205 Model 550 External SDLT320 Tape Drive
Answer: A
8. A customer is currently running a mail server application and is interested in a new storage subsystem. Whichof the following will have the most impact in sizing the subsystem?
A. Record size
B. Logical volume partitioning
C. Data security
D. Number of users
Answer: D
9. A large customer environment consists of 16 Intel-based servers that support electronic mail. The servers haveexceeded their disk storage capacity and the customer would like to centralize disk storage. Which of thefollowing solutions should be recommended?
A. IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
B. IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
C. IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
Answer: C
10. A customer is running a SAP R/3 application using Oracle Parallel Server as the database manager on an IBMeServer pSeries server. The customer would like two servers to share the same Oracle database. Which of thefollowing IBM storage products would NOT be recommended to meet the customer's requirement?
A. IBM TotalStorage EXP Plus
B. IBM TotalStorage SAN Filesystem
C. IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
D. IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
Answer: C
Pass4side IBM 000-742 (1)
Pass4side IBM 000-742（更新时间20008-9-20）考试题库 1 题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 。更新时间：2008-9-20
1. A customer has a single controller IBM TotalStorage DS4300 Storage Server. What is the maximum numberof expansion drawers that can be attached?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 7
D. 16
Answer: A
2. A customer has a requirement for 9 TB of data to be stored onto tape. If the customer wants the mostcost-effective LTO3 solution, the best technology choice would be:
A. IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader.
B. IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library.
C. IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library.
D. IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library.
Answer: B
3. A customer mentions that they are evaluating Advanced Intelligent Tape (AIT) for their open serverenvironment. Which of the following best describes AIT technology?
A. 4mm
B. Linear recording
C. Helical scan recording
D. IBM TotalStorage 3592 compatible tape
Answer: C
4. A customer needs to limit the total time it takes to back up an existing database. Which of the following isNOT required to understand the customer requirements?
A. The amount of data to be backed up
B. The kind of data being backed up
C. The maximum desired time the backup process should take
D. The number of days backups are scheduled
Answer: D
5. A customer has a heterogeneous environment that is backed up using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager attached to atape silo. Due to network congestion, the expanding data within the environment can no longer be backed upwithin the time available. The data growth is expected to increase rapidly over the next few months. Theaverage recovery window for this environment is currently estimated at 72 hours. Which of the followingoptions would resolve the network problem?
A. Install an IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500.
B. Utilize LAN free backups over the SAN.
C. Install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput.
D. Increase the number of tape drives within the silo.
Answer: B
1. A customer has a single controller IBM TotalStorage DS4300 Storage Server. What is the maximum numberof expansion drawers that can be attached?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 7
D. 16
Answer: A
2. A customer has a requirement for 9 TB of data to be stored onto tape. If the customer wants the mostcost-effective LTO3 solution, the best technology choice would be:
A. IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader.
B. IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library.
C. IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library.
D. IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library.
Answer: B
3. A customer mentions that they are evaluating Advanced Intelligent Tape (AIT) for their open serverenvironment. Which of the following best describes AIT technology?
A. 4mm
B. Linear recording
C. Helical scan recording
D. IBM TotalStorage 3592 compatible tape
Answer: C
4. A customer needs to limit the total time it takes to back up an existing database. Which of the following isNOT required to understand the customer requirements?
A. The amount of data to be backed up
B. The kind of data being backed up
C. The maximum desired time the backup process should take
D. The number of days backups are scheduled
Answer: D
5. A customer has a heterogeneous environment that is backed up using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager attached to atape silo. Due to network congestion, the expanding data within the environment can no longer be backed upwithin the time available. The data growth is expected to increase rapidly over the next few months. Theaverage recovery window for this environment is currently estimated at 72 hours. Which of the followingoptions would resolve the network problem?
A. Install an IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500.
B. Utilize LAN free backups over the SAN.
C. Install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput.
D. Increase the number of tape drives within the silo.
Answer: B
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-033最新考试题库分享（3）
考题内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 更新时间：2008-9-17
11. Smith is a DBA with ABC Corp. He is in the process of tuning the database. He has received various problemstatements from the customers. Identify three appropriately defined problem statements that Smith can use to tunethe database correctly. (Choose three.)
A.The system is too slow.
B.Online response is very slow.
C.Sometimes the batch process throws errors.
D.The weekly backup took 30 minutes, and earlier it used to take 5 minutes.
E.The batch process is taking 2 hours, whereas it should take only 30 minutes.
F.The system currently has 100 users. We wish to increase the number of users to 250. The users’ response timeshould not be affected.
Answer:: DEF
12. Smith is a DBA with XYZ Corp. There are 500 data entry users in an online transaction processing (OLTP)environment. The current response time is 15-20 seconds. The company wants the response time to be broughtdown to 10 seconds or less.What is the first thing that Smith should do to diagnose the cause of the slow response time?
A.determine whether there is contention for locks
B.determine whether the file system is fast enough
C.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to PGA
D.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to SGA
E.determine whether the slow response is wait bound or CPU bound
Answer:: E
13. Which two activities would adversely affect database performance? (Choose two.)
A.doing a soft parse
B.performing archiving
C.less frequent checkpointing
D.defining multiple buffer pools
E.taking online back up of data files
Answer:: BE
14. The following are the tasks that you need to perform to create a resource plan:A) Creating resource consumer groupsB) Validating pending areaC) Creating a pending areaD) Creating resource plansE) Creating plan directivesF) Submitting pending areaIn which order would you perform these tasks?
A.C, D, A, E, B, F
B.C, B, F, E, A, D
C.C, B, E, D, A, F
D.C, F, E, A, D, B
Answer:: A
15. View the Exhibit and examine the steps to create a database resource plan. Execution of the followingprocedure resulted in an error:SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.validate_pending_area();What could be the reason for this?
A.The ADMINISTER_RESOURCE_MANAGER privilege is not granted to the user.
B.The procedure should be executed before creating the resource plan directive.
C.The SYS_GROUP resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
D.The OTHER_GROUPS resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
Answer:: D
11. Smith is a DBA with ABC Corp. He is in the process of tuning the database. He has received various problemstatements from the customers. Identify three appropriately defined problem statements that Smith can use to tunethe database correctly. (Choose three.)
A.The system is too slow.
B.Online response is very slow.
C.Sometimes the batch process throws errors.
D.The weekly backup took 30 minutes, and earlier it used to take 5 minutes.
E.The batch process is taking 2 hours, whereas it should take only 30 minutes.
F.The system currently has 100 users. We wish to increase the number of users to 250. The users’ response timeshould not be affected.
Answer:: DEF
12. Smith is a DBA with XYZ Corp. There are 500 data entry users in an online transaction processing (OLTP)environment. The current response time is 15-20 seconds. The company wants the response time to be broughtdown to 10 seconds or less.What is the first thing that Smith should do to diagnose the cause of the slow response time?
A.determine whether there is contention for locks
B.determine whether the file system is fast enough
C.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to PGA
D.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to SGA
E.determine whether the slow response is wait bound or CPU bound
Answer:: E
13. Which two activities would adversely affect database performance? (Choose two.)
A.doing a soft parse
B.performing archiving
C.less frequent checkpointing
D.defining multiple buffer pools
E.taking online back up of data files
Answer:: BE
14. The following are the tasks that you need to perform to create a resource plan:A) Creating resource consumer groupsB) Validating pending areaC) Creating a pending areaD) Creating resource plansE) Creating plan directivesF) Submitting pending areaIn which order would you perform these tasks?
A.C, D, A, E, B, F
B.C, B, F, E, A, D
C.C, B, E, D, A, F
D.C, F, E, A, D, B
Answer:: A
15. View the Exhibit and examine the steps to create a database resource plan. Execution of the followingprocedure resulted in an error:SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.validate_pending_area();What could be the reason for this?
A.The ADMINISTER_RESOURCE_MANAGER privilege is not granted to the user.
B.The procedure should be executed before creating the resource plan directive.
C.The SYS_GROUP resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
D.The OTHER_GROUPS resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
Answer:: D
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-033最新考试题库分享（2）
考题内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 更新时间：2008-9-17
6. You have reserved memory within the Shared Pool by using the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZEparameter to accommodate large space allocations while compiling PL/SQL blocks and database triggers.While observing the performance of the reserved area, you find that the value of the REQUEST_FAILUREScolumn in the V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED view is continuously increasing.Which statement is true in this scenario?
A.The parsing of the statement fails due to invalidations.
B.The execution of the statement fails due to invalidations.
C.The space allocated for the reserved area is not enough.
D.The syntax in the PL/SQL blocks is causing the compilation failure.
Answer:: C
7. You need to size the KEEP pool. Which calculation would you use to determine the initial size of the KEEPpool?
A.50% of the DEFAULT pool
B.50% of the RECYCLE pool
C.the total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool / the number of objectsthat you need in the KEEP pool
D.total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool + additional space to allowfor object growth
Answer:: D
8. ABC Corp. plans to build an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The company plans to tune all thecomponents during the development life cycle.From the list given below, identify the order in which the components should be tuned.1. logical and physical model2. cursor sharing3. Oracle instance memory structures4. operating system5 data file I/O
A.1, 2, 3, 5, 4
B.1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C.1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D.1, 2, 5, 3, 4
Answer:: A
9. ABC Corp. has an online transaction processing (OLTP) system that has just gone into production. The systemwas rigorously tested during the development phases.What is the first recommended activity that the DBA should perform before starting to monitor the performance ofthe system on a regular basis?A.running SQL*TraceB.collecting baseline statisticsC.analyzing indexes and user tablesD.arranging meetings with users once each two weeks to discuss performanceAnswer:: B10. When tuning a database server, which three goals should you focus on? (Choose three.)
A.minimize response time for OLTP users
B.maximize throughput for batch processing
C.minimize response time for batch processing
D.increase load capability for the decision-support systemsE.minimize parallelism for online transaction processing (OLTP) systems
Answer:: ABD
6. You have reserved memory within the Shared Pool by using the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZEparameter to accommodate large space allocations while compiling PL/SQL blocks and database triggers.While observing the performance of the reserved area, you find that the value of the REQUEST_FAILUREScolumn in the V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED view is continuously increasing.Which statement is true in this scenario?
A.The parsing of the statement fails due to invalidations.
B.The execution of the statement fails due to invalidations.
C.The space allocated for the reserved area is not enough.
D.The syntax in the PL/SQL blocks is causing the compilation failure.
Answer:: C
7. You need to size the KEEP pool. Which calculation would you use to determine the initial size of the KEEPpool?
A.50% of the DEFAULT pool
B.50% of the RECYCLE pool
C.the total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool / the number of objectsthat you need in the KEEP pool
D.total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool + additional space to allowfor object growth
Answer:: D
8. ABC Corp. plans to build an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The company plans to tune all thecomponents during the development life cycle.From the list given below, identify the order in which the components should be tuned.1. logical and physical model2. cursor sharing3. Oracle instance memory structures4. operating system5 data file I/O
A.1, 2, 3, 5, 4
B.1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C.1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D.1, 2, 5, 3, 4
Answer:: A
9. ABC Corp. has an online transaction processing (OLTP) system that has just gone into production. The systemwas rigorously tested during the development phases.What is the first recommended activity that the DBA should perform before starting to monitor the performance ofthe system on a regular basis?A.running SQL*TraceB.collecting baseline statisticsC.analyzing indexes and user tablesD.arranging meetings with users once each two weeks to discuss performanceAnswer:: B10. When tuning a database server, which three goals should you focus on? (Choose three.)
A.minimize response time for OLTP users
B.maximize throughput for batch processing
C.minimize response time for batch processing
D.increase load capability for the decision-support systemsE.minimize parallelism for online transaction processing (OLTP) systems
Answer:: ABD
Pass4side Oracle 1Z0-033最新考试题库分享（1）
考题内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 更新时间：2008-9-17
1. You create a stored outline and apply it for use. What strategy would you adopt to verify that the stored outlineis being used for a statement?
A.verify OL$,OL$HINTS, and OL$NODES tables after running the statement with USE_STORED_OUTLINESset
B.examine the V$SQL dynamic performance view after running the statement with theUSE_STORED_OUTLINES set
C.compare the explain plan output for the statement when running with and without theUSE_STORED_OUTLINES set
D.compare the statspack output by taking snaps before and after running the statement with theUSE_STORED_OUTLINES set
Answer:: C
2. View the Exhibit.In your database, you find that the fy05q1 table in a dictionary managed tablespace has excess space. Further, youfind that the table consists of three extents. The size of the first extent is 100KB, the second is 200KB, and thethird is 300K. The high water mark is in the middle of the second extent, and there is 400KB of unused space.You want to release the unused space so that it can be used by other segments. You execute the followingcommand to achieve this task:SQL> ALTER TABLE fy05q1 DEALLOCATE UNUSED;What would this command do?
A.deallocates the third and second extents
B.deallocates the third extent; the second extent remains as it is
C.deallocates the third extent, and the second extent is sized to 100KB
D.returns an error because the unused space is above the high water mark
Answer:: C
3. Why does performance degrade when many UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE statements are issued on a tablethat has an associated Bitmap index?
A.Some DML operations re-create the Bitmap index blocks.
B.The Bitmap index is rebuilt automatically after a DML operation.
C.The smallest amount of a bitmap that can be locked is a bitmap segment.
D.Additional time is taken to remove NULL values from the Bitmap index after a DML operation.
Answer:: C
4. In an online transaction processing (OLTP) system, you notice that the transactions are waiting. Which twotechniques would you use to determine if it is a locking problem? (Choose two.)
A.query V$SESSION to determine the sessions waiting for locks
B.query V$LOCKED_OBJECT to diagnose the deadlocked sessions
C.execute the utllockt.sql script to find the list of locking and waiting transactions
D.use the catblock.sql script to populate DBA_BLOCKERS and DBA_WAITERS viewsE.query the DBA_WAITERS view to determine the sessions that are waiting for a locked resource
Answer:: CE
5. A customer has various dictionary-managed tablespaces with past data. The extents in dictionary-managedtablespaces are not uniformly sized. Newly created tablespaces are locally managed. You want to make all thetablespaces locally managed. What approach would you use to change the dictionary-managed tablespaces tolocally managed tablespaces to get all the performance benefits of local extent management?
A.use only the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
B.create new locally managed tablespaces and move data from existing dictionary-managed tablespaces to locallymanaged tablespaces
C.use the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure, followed byDBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_FIX_SEGMENT_STATES
D.use the ALTER TABLESPACE command to change extent management to local, and then use theDBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
Answer:: B
1. You create a stored outline and apply it for use. What strategy would you adopt to verify that the stored outlineis being used for a statement?
A.verify OL$,OL$HINTS, and OL$NODES tables after running the statement with USE_STORED_OUTLINESset
B.examine the V$SQL dynamic performance view after running the statement with theUSE_STORED_OUTLINES set
C.compare the explain plan output for the statement when running with and without theUSE_STORED_OUTLINES set
D.compare the statspack output by taking snaps before and after running the statement with theUSE_STORED_OUTLINES set
Answer:: C
2. View the Exhibit.In your database, you find that the fy05q1 table in a dictionary managed tablespace has excess space. Further, youfind that the table consists of three extents. The size of the first extent is 100KB, the second is 200KB, and thethird is 300K. The high water mark is in the middle of the second extent, and there is 400KB of unused space.You want to release the unused space so that it can be used by other segments. You execute the followingcommand to achieve this task:SQL> ALTER TABLE fy05q1 DEALLOCATE UNUSED;What would this command do?
A.deallocates the third and second extents
B.deallocates the third extent; the second extent remains as it is
C.deallocates the third extent, and the second extent is sized to 100KB
D.returns an error because the unused space is above the high water mark
Answer:: C
3. Why does performance degrade when many UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE statements are issued on a tablethat has an associated Bitmap index?
A.Some DML operations re-create the Bitmap index blocks.
B.The Bitmap index is rebuilt automatically after a DML operation.
C.The smallest amount of a bitmap that can be locked is a bitmap segment.
D.Additional time is taken to remove NULL values from the Bitmap index after a DML operation.
Answer:: C
4. In an online transaction processing (OLTP) system, you notice that the transactions are waiting. Which twotechniques would you use to determine if it is a locking problem? (Choose two.)
A.query V$SESSION to determine the sessions waiting for locks
B.query V$LOCKED_OBJECT to diagnose the deadlocked sessions
C.execute the utllockt.sql script to find the list of locking and waiting transactions
D.use the catblock.sql script to populate DBA_BLOCKERS and DBA_WAITERS viewsE.query the DBA_WAITERS view to determine the sessions that are waiting for a locked resource
Answer:: CE
5. A customer has various dictionary-managed tablespaces with past data. The extents in dictionary-managedtablespaces are not uniformly sized. Newly created tablespaces are locally managed. You want to make all thetablespaces locally managed. What approach would you use to change the dictionary-managed tablespaces tolocally managed tablespaces to get all the performance benefits of local extent management?
A.use only the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
B.create new locally managed tablespaces and move data from existing dictionary-managed tablespaces to locallymanaged tablespaces
C.use the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure, followed byDBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_FIX_SEGMENT_STATES
D.use the ALTER TABLESPACE command to change extent management to local, and then use theDBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
Answer:: B
Pass4side EMC E20-616 V6.13最新题库（4）
16. How is the Katana number determined on a DMX-800?
A. IMPL bin file
B. Enclosure ID
C. Customer decides
D. FEBE port connection
Answer: D
17. Which command finds the physical location of the M2 of mirrored dev 64?
A. A7,C,64
B. A7,D,64
C. D2,64,0
D. E7,D,64
Answer: B
18. What is the cache slot size on a DMX3?
A. 16K
B. 32K
C. 64K
D. 128K
Answer: C
19. Click the Exhibit button.Where are the daisy chained disks physically located?
A. Lower 2A cabinet
B. Lower 2B cabinet
C. Upper 2A cabinet
D. Upper 2B cabinet
Answer: A
20. Which condition would prevent a spare from invoking on a failing drive?
A. RAID 5 only
B. Parity RAID only
C. All 4 mirror slots are taken
D. None; EMC can spare out everything
Answer: C
A. IMPL bin file
B. Enclosure ID
C. Customer decides
D. FEBE port connection
Answer: D
17. Which command finds the physical location of the M2 of mirrored dev 64?
A. A7,C,64
B. A7,D,64
C. D2,64,0
D. E7,D,64
Answer: B
18. What is the cache slot size on a DMX3?
A. 16K
B. 32K
C. 64K
D. 128K
Answer: C
19. Click the Exhibit button.Where are the daisy chained disks physically located?
A. Lower 2A cabinet
B. Lower 2B cabinet
C. Upper 2A cabinet
D. Upper 2B cabinet
Answer: A
20. Which condition would prevent a spare from invoking on a failing drive?
A. RAID 5 only
B. Parity RAID only
C. All 4 mirror slots are taken
D. None; EMC can spare out everything
Answer: C
Pass4side EMC E20-616 V6.13最新题库（3）
题库内容摘自http://www.pass4side.cn/ 更新时间：2008-9-19
11. Click the Exhibit button.Identify the DMX-1000 memory boards.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
12. What is the benefit of configuring devices as Dynamic SRDF?
A. Control SRDF links
B. Delay D/E to the host
C. Swap SRDF pairs with host software
D. Dynamically change R/W status to the host
Answer: C
13. Which functions are performed by the XCM cards?
A. Communications only
B. Power monitoring only
C. Environmental monitoring only
D. Power monitoring, environmental and communications
Answer: D
14. How many disk operations does Parity RAID do for every host write?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C
15. How many power connections are needed for a 2 bay DMX3?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B
11. Click the Exhibit button.Identify the DMX-1000 memory boards.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
12. What is the benefit of configuring devices as Dynamic SRDF?
A. Control SRDF links
B. Delay D/E to the host
C. Swap SRDF pairs with host software
D. Dynamically change R/W status to the host
Answer: C
13. Which functions are performed by the XCM cards?
A. Communications only
B. Power monitoring only
C. Environmental monitoring only
D. Power monitoring, environmental and communications
Answer: D
14. How many disk operations does Parity RAID do for every host write?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C
15. How many power connections are needed for a 2 bay DMX3?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B
Pass4side EMC E20-616 V6.13最新题库（2）
题库内容摘自www.pass4side.cn 更新时间：2008-9-19
6. After adding Ficon Directors, they do NOT appear as EF in Volumes map. Why?
A. Ficon Directors are automatically addressed
B. Ficon Directors must be added to the host screen
C. Ficon Directors appear as a Split in Volumes map
D. Ficon Directors must be added at Director Edit screen
Answer: C
7. Which PowerPath load balancing policy is used when I/O requests are distributed to each available path in turn?
A. Basic Failover
B. Least I/O
C. Request
D. Round Robin
Answer: D
8. What condition will cause the DMX 3 to vault?
A. Fan module goes out
B. Memory Failure in slot 10
C. Front end cards brought offline
D. Battery time less than 5 minutes
Answer: D
9. Which 8430/8530 card slots are universal?
A. 4,B
B. 5,6
C. 10,11
D. 15,16
Answer: A
10. Which command lists all the WWNs that are logged into port 1?
A. A1,,,1
B. A7,C,1
C. E7,,,1
D. 8F,,,1
Answer: D
6. After adding Ficon Directors, they do NOT appear as EF in Volumes map. Why?
A. Ficon Directors are automatically addressed
B. Ficon Directors must be added to the host screen
C. Ficon Directors appear as a Split in Volumes map
D. Ficon Directors must be added at Director Edit screen
Answer: C
7. Which PowerPath load balancing policy is used when I/O requests are distributed to each available path in turn?
A. Basic Failover
B. Least I/O
C. Request
D. Round Robin
Answer: D
8. What condition will cause the DMX 3 to vault?
A. Fan module goes out
B. Memory Failure in slot 10
C. Front end cards brought offline
D. Battery time less than 5 minutes
Answer: D
9. Which 8430/8530 card slots are universal?
A. 4,B
B. 5,6
C. 10,11
D. 15,16
Answer: A
10. Which command lists all the WWNs that are logged into port 1?
A. A1,,,1
B. A7,C,1
C. E7,,,1
D. 8F,,,1
Answer: D
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